The Ruling about having shares in companies and banks
Question: What is the ruling about having shares in companies and banks'? And is it permissible for a shareholder (in a company or a bank) to sell shares, specifically after he has become a shareholder himself, to offices dealing in buying and selling (stockbrokers)? And from that which is possible is selling them (the shares) for more than the price that the shareholder paid. So what is the ruling about the profit which the shareholder makes every year from the value of the shares bought?
Response: Having shares in banks and companies that trade in ribaa is not permissible. And if the shareholder wants to rid himself of any ribaa in his shareholding, then he should sell his shares at market value and take the initial investment only. The rest he should give in charity, and it is not permissible for him to take anything from the profits of his shareholding or interest. However, if the shareholding was in a company which does not trade in ribaa, then it's profits are halaal.
And with Allaah lies all success and may Allaah send prayers and salutations upon our Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) and his family and his companions.
The Permanent Committee for Islaamic Research and Fataawa, comprising -
Head: Shaykh 'Abdul 'Azeez ibn Abdullaah ibn Baaz;
Member: Shaykh 'Abdullaah ibn Ghudayyaan;
Member: Shaykh 'Abdullaah Ibn Qu'ood
Fataawa al-Lajnah ad-Daa.imah lil-Buhooth al-'Ilmiyyah wal-Iftaa. - Volume 13, Page 508, Fatwa No.8996
The Ruling about having shares in companies and banks
Buying goods using debit cards
Buying goods using debit cards
Question: I hope your excellencies can advise us about using Saudi Net (debit) cards when buying items from stores in the following manner: When the total sale price is agreed upon, for example SR150 (riyals), the card is presented to the salesman who passes ("swipes") it through a machine he has in the store. The (total) value of the transaction is then debited instantly by transferring the amount from the buyer's account to the vendor's account in the same instant, i.e. before the buyer leaves the store.
Response: If the matter is as you describe, then there is no harm in using the mentioned card, so long as the buyer has sufficient funds in his account to cover the required amount (of the sale).
And with Allaah lies all success and may Allaah send prayers and salutations upon our Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) and his family and his companions.
The Permanent Committee for Islaamic Research and Fataawa, comprising -
Head: Shaykh 'Abdul 'Azeez Ibn Abdullaah Ibn Baaz;
Member: Shaykh 'Abdul-'Azeez Aal ash-Shaykh;
Member: Shaykh Saalih Ibn Fowzaan;
Member: Shaykh Bakar Ibn 'Abdullaah Abu Zayd
Fataawa al-Lajnah ad-Daa.imah lil-Buhooth al-'Ilmiyyah wal-Iftaa., - Volume 13, Page 527, Fatwa
Depositing money in a bank for safe keeping
Depositing money in a bank for safe keeping
Question: Is it permissible for whoever has a lump sum of money to put it in a bank with the intention for safe keeping, and whenever the zakaah is obligatory upon that sum of money he extracts the required amount and gives the zakaah? Please advise us, and may Allaah reward you with good.
Response: It is not permissible to deposit money for safe keeping in a bank which deals with ribaa, even if you do not take the ribaa, since this entails assisting in sin and transgresson, and Allaah has forbidden that.
However, if you are compelled to do so, and do not take the ribaa, and you are unable to find another place to safe keep your money except a bank which deals with ribaa, then there is no harm due to the necessity, inshaa.-Allaah. And Allaah (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) says:
{He has explained to you in detail what is forbidden to you, except under compulsion of necessity}, [Soorah al-An'aam, Aayah 119].
And whenever you find an Islaamic bank or a safe place which does not involve assisiting in sin and transgression, then place your money there, as it will not then be permisisble for you to leave (your money) in a bank which deals with ribaa.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Silsilah Kitaab ad-Da'wah (1), al-Fataawa - Volume 1, Page 147
Depositing money in a bank which does not deal with ribaa
Depositing money in a bank which does not deal with ribaa
Question: These days, many accidents occur and blood-money is difficult (to pay). So, as a group, we agreed to collect a large sum of money and deposited it in Bank ar-Rajhee for safe keeping, where it remained for some time. So is there any sin upon us in leaving this money in the bank, knowing that we extract the zakaah which is due upon it. Please advise us, and may Allaah reward you with good.
Response: There is no harm for it (the money) to remain in Bank ar-Rajhee as it does not deal with ribaa from that which we know.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Silsilah Kitaab ad-Da'wah (1), al-Fataawa - Volume 1, Page 150
Circumstances compel him to work for a bank which deals with ribaa
Circumstances compel him to work for a bank which deals with ribaa
Question: What is the ruling regarding someone whose circumstances compel him to work in a bank or (any) local money exchanges in the Kingdom (of Saudi Arabia), such as al-Bank al-Ahlee at-Tijaaree, and Bank ar-Riyaadh, and Bank al-Jazeerah, and al-Bank al-'Arabee al-Watanee, and Sharikah ar-Raajhee lis-Saraafah wat-Tijaarah, and Maktab al-Ka'kee lis-Saraafah, and al-Bank as-Sa'oodee al-Amreekee and other than them from the local banks. (Whilst in their employ) they open savings accounts for the employees who work as clerks, such as: the one who writes the transactions, the checker of transactions, the exchange officer and other than them from the adminstration employees. And these banks provide a number of benefits to attract (potential) employees to (work for) them, such as housing allowance which equates to approximately SR12,000 or more, and two months salary at the end of the year, so what is the ruling regardng this?
Response: Working in a bank which deals with ribaa is not permissible, since it has been confirmed from the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) that he cursed those who ate/benefitted (aakil) from ribaa as well as the one responsible (for the transactions), the one who writes (the transactions) and the witnesses (to the transactions), and he said:
((...they are the same/equal...)), transmitted by Imaam Muslim.
And also, for that which it entails in assisting in sin and transgression , as Allaah (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) says:
{Help you one another in al-Birr and at-Taqwa (virtue, righteousness and piety); but do not help one another in sin and transgression, and fear Allaah - verily, Allaah is severe in punishment}, [Soorah al-Maa.idah, Aayah 2].
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Silsilah Kitaab ad-Da'wah (1), al-Fataawa - Volume 1, Page 141
I am prone to masturbation
I am prone to masturbation
Question: I am a student who is prone to masturbation. So my desires have overcome me such that I have not fasted (Ramadhaan) as a result and have abstained from performing my (obligatory) prayers for a long while. And now I try to exhert myself, and most of the time I succeed (in refraining from masturbation) such that sometimes I perform the witr prayer at night and likewise before I sleep. So, with all this, are my prayers accepted or do I have to make up the prayers? And what is the ruling regarding masturbation, keeping in mind that I mostly do it when I watch the television or video?
Response: Practicing masturbation is haraam because it is seeking pleasure in other than what Allaah (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) has permitted. Allaah has not permitted the seeking of pleasure and satisfying the sexual desires except with (one's own) wife or with that which the right hand possesses. Allaah (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) says:
{And those who guard their chastity (i.e. private parts, from illegal sexual acts). Except from their wives or (the captives and slaves) that their right hands possess, for then, they are free from blame}, [Soorah al-Mu.minoon, Aayaat 5-6]
So, any (form of) seeking pleasure with other than (one's own) wife or with that which the right hand possesses is considered prophibited and going against (the Law of Allaah).
The Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) advised the youth with a remedy which would alleviate (any) raging desires and the danger of (these) desires, as he (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((O gathering of youth! Whoever amongst you is able, then he should get married, since that is indeed more protective for the eyes and the private parts; and whoever is unable, then he should fast, for that is indeed better for him)), [Saheeh al-Bukhaaree - V.7, P.117]
So, the Messenger (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) advised with ridding ourselves of our desires and distancing ourselves from its dangers by one of two ways: either by fasting - for one who is unable (to get married) or by marrying - for one who is able (to get married).
This indicates that there is no third (option) for the youth to try. So, masturbation is haraam and is (thus) not permissibile in any circumstance according to the majority of the people of knowledge.
You are therefore required to repent to Allaah (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) and not to revert to this act (of masterbating, rather) to distance yourself from that which affects (excites) your desires, as you have mentioned that you watch television and video and see (images) which excite the desires. So, that wich is obligatory upon you is to distance yourself from seeing such (images) and not turn the televison or video on to watch these things which excite your desires. This is because this is from the means to evil, and the Muslim is required for himself to close (all) the doors to evil, and (in return) the doors to good shall be opened for him (inshaa.-Allaah).
So, distance yourself from all evil and fitnah that comes your way. And from the greatest causes of fitnah and evil are these films and soap operas which depict women in a manner which excites the desires. You are therefore required to distance yourself from these and (further) remove the means to this (evil).
As regards repeating the witr and naafilah prayers, then you are not required to do so, since the (previously mentioned evil) acts do not nullify the witr (prayer) or the tahajjud (prayer); (as regards you having) masterbated, then this in itself is prohibited and you are sinning by doing so. However, the acts of worship which you have already performed according to (that which has been legislated in) the Sharee'ah, then they are not nullified except by shirk or appostasising - and Allaah's Refuge is sought. As regards acts other than shirk and appostasising, then they do not nullify acts (of worship), however, they are regarded as sinful.
Shaykh Ibn al-Fowzaan
al-Muntaqaa min Fataawa Fadheelatush-Shaykh Saalih Ibn Fowzaan - Volume 4, Page 272, Fatwa No. 277
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Try the following link for more fataawa regarding masturbation:
worship » fasting » that which does and does not break the fast » masturbation
The ruling concerning celebrating birthdays
The ruling concerning celebrating birthdays
Question: What is the ruling concerning celebrating birthdays?
Response: Celebrating birthdays has no source whatsoever in the pure Sharee'ah. In fact, it is an innovation, since the Messenger of Allaah (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((Whoever introduces anything into this matter of ours that does not belong to it shall have that action rejected)). This was recorded by both al-Bukhaaree and Muslim.
In a version recorded by Muslim and by al-Bukhaaree in definitive mu'allaq form:
((Whoever performs a deed which is not in accord with our affairs, that deed is rejected)).
It is well-known that the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) did not celebrate his birthday at all during his lifetime nor did he ever order it to be celebrated. Nor did he teach such to his Companions. Therefore, the rightly-guided caleephs and all of his Companions did not celebrate it. They are the most knowledgeable of the people concerning his sunnah and they are the most beloved to the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam). They were also the most keen upon following whatever the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) brought. Therefore, if one is supposed to celebrate the Prophet's birthday, this would have been made evident at their time.
Similarly, not one of the scholars of the best generations celebrated his birthday nor did they order it to be done. Therefore, it is known from the above that such a celebration is not from the Law that Allaah sent Muhammad (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) with. We ask Allaah and all Muslims to witness that if the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) had done so or ordered such to be done, or even if his Companions had done so, we would rush to do it and call others to do it. This is because, and all praises are due to Allaah, we are the most keen in following his sunnah and respecting his commands and prohibitions.
We ask Allaah, for ourselves and for all of our brethren Muslims, steadfastness upon the truth, avoiding everything that differs from Allaah's pure Sharee'ah. Verily, He is Generous and Noble.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Ruling regarding celebrating Valentine's Day
Ruling regarding celebrating Valentine's Day
Question: Some people celebrate Yawm al-Hubb (Valentine's Day) on February 14 [the second month of the Christian Gregorian calendar] every year by exchanging red roses as gifts. They also dress up in red clothing, and congratulate one another (on this occasion). Some sweet shops produce special sweets - red in colour - and draw hearts upon them. Some shops advertise their goods which are specially related to this day. What is the Islaamic view [concerning the following]:
1. Celebrating this day?
2. Buying from these shops on this day?
3. Selling - by shop-owners who are not celebrating - the things which are used as gifts, to those who are celebrating?
(And) may Allaah reward you with all good!
Response: The clear evidence from the Qur.aan and Sunnah - and this is agreed upon by consensus (Ijmaa') of the early generations of the Muslim Ummah - indicates that there are only two 'Eeds in Islaam (days of celebration): 'Eed al-Fitr (after the fast of Ramadhaan) and 'Eed al-Adhaa (after the standing at 'Arafah for pilgrimage).
Every other 'Eed - whether it is coto a person, group, incident or any other occasion - is an innovated 'Eed. It is not permissible for the Muslim people to participate in it, approve of it, make any show of happiness on its occasion, or assist in it in any way - since this will be transgressing the bounds of Allaah:
{...and whoever transgresses the bounds of Allaah, he has wronged his own self}, [Soorah at-Talaaq, Aayah 1]
If we add to this fabricated 'Eed the fact that it is one of the 'Eeds of the disbelievers, it is sin upon sin. This is because it is Tashabbuh (imitation) of the disbelievers, and a type of Muwaalaat (loyalty) to them. And Allaah has prohibited the believers from imitation of them and having love or loyalty for them in His Mighty Book (Qur.aan). It is also confirmed from the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) that he said: Whoever imitates a people is one of them.
'Eed al-Hubb (the celebration of Valentine's Day) comes under the category of what has been mentioned here, since it is one of the pagan Christian holidays. Hence it is not permissible for any Muslim, who believes in Allaah and the Last Day, to participate in it, approve of it, or congratulate (anyone on that occasion). On the contrary, it is obligatory to abandon it and stay far away from it - in response to Allaah and His Messenger, and to distance oneself from the anger of Allaah and His punishment.
Additionally, it is forbidden for a Muslim to assist or help in this 'Eed, or any other of the forbidden/illegal celebrations in any way whatsoever - whether by food or drink, selling or buying, production, gift-giving, correspondence, announcements, etc. All of these things are considered as co-operating in sin and transgression and disobedience of Allaah and His Messenger. Allaah, the Glorious and Most High, says:
{... and co-operate with one another in righteousness and piety, and do not co-operate in sin and transgression. And fear Allaah! Verily Allaah is severe in punishment}, [Soorah al-Maa.idah, Aayah 2]
Likewise, it is obligatory for every Muslim to adhere strictly to the Qur.aan and Sunnah in every situation - especially in times of temptations and corruption. It is incumbent that he/she understand, be aware and be cautioned from falling into the deviations of those whom Allaah is angry with (Jews) and those who are astray (Christians) and the immoral people who have no fear of punishment - nor hope of reward - from Allaah, and who give no attention at all to Islaam.
It is necessary for the Muslim to flee to Allaah, the Most High, seeking His Hidaayah (Guidance) and Thabaat (Firmness) upon the Path. Verily, there is no Guide except Allaah, and no One Who can Grant Firmness except Him.
And with Allaah lies all success and may Allaah send prayers and salutations upon our Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) and his family and his companions.
The Permanent Committee for Islaamic Research and Fataawa
Head: Shaykh 'Abdul 'Azeez Aal ash-Shaykh;
Deputy Head: Shaykh Saalih ibn Fowzaan;
Member: Shaykh 'Abdullaah ibn Ghudayyaan;
Member: Shaykh Bakar ibn 'Abdullaah Abu Zayd
Fataawa al-Lajnah ad-Daa.imah lil-Buhooth al-'Ilmiyyah wal-Iftaa. - Fatwa No. 21203
The ruling regarding celebrating the new millennium and how the Muslims should prepare themselves to welcome in the new millennium
The ruling regarding celebrating the new millennium and how the Muslims should prepare themselves to welcome in the new millennium
Question: What is the Sharee'ah ruling, in your opinion, regarding this matter? And how should the Muslims prepare themselves to welcome in the new millennium?
Response: It is not befitting for the Muslims to pay any attention to this matter, nor make it an issue. This is because they have no connection to it, since the date (system) of the Muslims is the Hijree calendar which is based upon the best of occasions (the Hijrah of the Muslims from Makkah to Madeenah). This is the most appropriate occasion to start the Islaamic date (system) because it is the date which reminds them of the beginning of their glory and the setting up of their state and their mighty sovereignty.
As for what some people are publicising concerning that which is to happen, then all of this is evil speech, and there is no basis in the Sharee'ah nor the mind nor perception, O Allaah, except for that which is from their own doing from that which they have invented and have appointed as a (specified) period of time to come to an end to.
As for the knowledge of the unseen, then it is with Allaah alone. Allaah (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) says:
{None in the heavens and the earth knows the ghayb (unseen) except Allaah, nor can they perceive when they shall be resurrected}, [Soorah an-Naml, Aayah 65].
I ask Allaah to bestow upon us honour with our eemaan (faith) and victory over our enemies, for certainly he is the All-Bountiful the All-Generous.
Shaykh Ibn a-'Uthaymeen
Monday 7 Sha'baan 1420 / 15 November 1999 - Tanbeehaat Haammah bi-Munaasibati 'Aam Alfayn - Pages 55-56
Is it permissible for a menstruating woman to recite the Qur.aan and books of supplications?
Is it permissible for a menstruating woman to recite the Qur.aan and books of supplications?
Question: Is it allowed for a menstruating woman to read a book of supplications on the Day of 'Arafah, given the fact that the book contains Qur.aanic verses?
Response: There is no harm in a menstruating or post-partum bleeding woman reading the books of supplications that are written for the rites of the pilgrimage. In fact, there is nothing wrong with her reciting the Qur.aan according to the correct opinion. There is no authentic, clear text prohibiting a menstruating or post-partum bleeding woman from reciting the Qur.aan. The thing that is narrated is concerned with the sexually defiled person only, as such should not recite the Qur.aan while he is sexually defiled. This is based on the hadeeth of 'Alee.
As for the menstruating or post-partum bleeding woman, there is the hadeeth of Ibn 'Umar which states, "Neither the menstruating woman nor the sexually defiled person is to recite anything from the Qur.aan." However, this is weak. This is because it is from the narrations of Ismaa'eel ibn Iyyash on the authority of people from the Hijaaz and he is weak when he narrates from them. However, she may recite from her memory without touching the Qur.aan. As for the sexually defiled person, he/she may not even recite the Qur.aan from memory or touch the mushaf until he/she makes ghusl. The difference between the two is that the amount of time one is sexually defiled is very short as he may make ghusl as soon as he has done the act with his spouse. The amount of time is not long and he is in control of its length as he may make ghusl whenever he wishes. Even if he cannot find water, he can make tayammum and pray or recite the Qur.aan. However, the menstruating or post-partum bleeding woman does not have control over their lengths, such control is in the hand of Allaah. Menstruation and post-partum bleeding take days.
Therefore, it is allowed for them to recite the Qur.aan so that they do not forget what they have memorized and so they will not lose the merits of reciting it. It is also so they may learn the laws of the Sharee'ah from the Book of Allaah. Therefore it is even more so permissible for her to read the books of supplications that have verses and hadeeth intermixed with them. This is the correct view and is the correct opinion of the scholars- may Allaah have mercy on them- on that point.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
If a woman has a miscarriage in the third month of her pregnancy
If a woman has a miscarriage in the third month of her pregnancy
Question: A year ago, I had a miscarriage in my third month of pregnancy. I stopped praying until the blood stopped. It was said to me that I should have prayed. What should I do now since I do not know the exact number of days I did not pray?
Response: What is well-known and accepted among the scholars is that if a woman has a miscarriage in the third month, she does not pray. This is because when the woman has such a miscarriage the fetus has clear signs of being a human. Therefore, the blood that then flows is considered post-partum bleeding and the woman does not pray. The scholars say that fetus take on the shape of a human after eighty-one days, which is less than three months. If you are certain that you had a miscarriage after three months, the blood that came was post-partum bleeding. However, if it were before eighty days, then the blood that came is irregular or abnormal blood and she should not leave the prayer due to it. So the one who asked the question must see if the miscarriage was before eighty days, in which case she must make up the prayers she missed. If she does not know how many days she missed, she must estimate the matter and make up what she believes she has missed.
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Getting her menses while she is in the masjid
Getting her menses while she is in the masjid
Question: A woman had blood starting to flow while she was in the Masjid of the Prophet (sal-Allaahu 'alayhe wa sallam). She stayed in the masjid for a little while until her husband had finished the prayer and she could leave with him. Did she commit a sin?
Response: If she was not able to depart from the masjid by herself, then there is no harm in what she did. However, if she was able to leave by herself, it is obligatory upon her to exit as quickly as possible. This is because the menstruating woman, post-partum bleeding woman and sexually defiled person are not allowed to sit in the masaajid (plural of masjid). This is based on Allaah's statement:
{Nor while sexually defiled except when traveling on a road}, Soorah an-Nisaa., Aayah 43.
It is also narrated from the Prophet (sal-Allaahu 'alayhe wa sallam) that he said:
((I do not permit the menstruating woman or the sexually defiled person to enter the masjid)).
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Drops of blood after making ghusl
Drops of blood after making ghusl
Question: I notice that sometimes after making ghusl due to my monthly menses, after having had my period for a normal amount of time, five days, I have a very small amount of drops coming out. This occurs right after I make ghusl. After that, nothing else comes out. I do not know what to do. Should I follow my normal five-day period and simply ignore what occurs after that and continue to pray and fast? Or should I consider that day also part of my period and not pray or fast during it? Note that such does not always occur to me but only occurs every two or three, or so, monthly cycles. I hope you will benefit me on this matter.
Response: If what comes out after your washing is either yellow or brown, it is not to be taken into consideration [as menses] and it takes the same ruling as urine. However, if it is clearly blood, it will then be considered part of the menses and you must repeat the ghusl due to what is confirmed from Umm 'Atiyyah, one of the Companions of the Messenger of Allaah (sal-Allaahu 'alayhe wa sallam), who said, "We would not consider yellowish or brownish discharge as anything after we had been purified [from menses].
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
If the menses continue for more than their normal length
If the menses continue for more than their normal length
Question: If a woman normally has menses for eight or seven days but once or twice she has them for a longer period, what is the ruling concerning that?
Response: If that woman normally has her menses for six or seven days and then they become longer, becoming eight, nine, ten or eleven days, then she remains not praying until she becomes pure. This is because the Prophet (sal-Allaahu 'alayhe wa sallam) did not set any specific limit for menstruation. Allaah says in the Qur.aan:
{They ask you concerning menstruation. Say: It is a harmful thing...}, Soorah al-Baqarah, Aayah 222.
As long as that blood is flowing, the woman remains in her state of menses until she becomes pure [the blood stops] and she makes ghusl and prays. If, in the following month, the blood comes for a shorter period of time, she makes ghusl when the blood stops even if it was not as long as the previous period. The important point is that as long as the woman is having menses, she remains in that state as long as she has bleeding and she does not pray, regardless of whether that amount of time is the same, longer or shorter than her previous menses. When the blood stops, she prays.
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
If a woman ends her menses before sunset, she must perform the Zhuhr and 'Asr prayers
If a woman ends her menses before sunset, she must perform the Zhuhr and 'Asr prayers
Question: When a menstruating woman becomes pure before sunrise is it obligatory upon her to perform the Maghrib and Isha prayers? Similarly, if She becomes pure before sunset, is it obligatory upon her to perform the Zhuhr and 'Asr prayers?
Response: If a menstruating or post-partum bleeding woman becomes pure before sunset, it is obligatory upon her to perform both the Zhuhr and 'Asr prayers according to the strongest opinion among the scholars. Similar is the case if she becomes pure before dawn. In that case, she must perform the Maghrib and Isha prayers. This has been narrated from 'Abdur-Rahmaan Ibn 'Awf and 'Abdullaah Ibn 'Abbaas. This is the opinion of the majority of the scholars. Similarly, if a menstruating or post-partum bleeding woman becomes pure before sunrise, it is obligatory upon her to perform the Fajr prayer.
And from Allaah is guidance.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Discontinuation of bleeding during the menses
Discontinuation of bleeding during the menses
Question: Sometimes it happens to me, during my menses, that I have blood for four days and then the blood stops for three days. Then on the Seventh day the blood returns, but not as intense as previously. Then it turns to a brown color until the twelfth day. I hope you will guide me to what is correct in this matter.
Response: The days that you mentioned, the four and the six day periods, are days of menstruation, You should not pray or fast during those days. It is not allowed for your husband to have sexual intercourse with you during those days. You should make ghusl after the four days and then pray and your husband may have intercourse with you during that period between the four and the six days. Also, there is no prohibition upon your fasting. If that occurs during Ramadhaan, it is obligatory upon you to fast. And when you become pure after those six days, you must make ghusl, pray and fast like any other time of purity. This is because the monthly menses can increase or decrease. Its days are sometimes together and sometimes separated.
May Allaah guide us all to what pleases Him. May He provide us, you and all the Muslims with understanding and steadfastness in the religion.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Ruling concerning a discharge of blood five days before giving birth
Question: A woman had bleeding during pregnancy, five days before giving birth, during the month of Ramadhaan. Should that blood be considered menstruation or istihaadha and what are the obligations upon her?
Response: If the matter is as mentioned, with her seeing blood five days before giving birth, and she did not have any signs that labor would be soon, such as contractions, in that case, the blood is neither menstruation nor post-partum bleeding. It is simply irregular blood. Therefore, she should not abandon the acts of worship but she must fast and pray. If along with the blood she has signs that her labor is near, such as contractions, then it is considered post-partum bleeding and she abandons, due to it, praying and fasting. Then if she becomes pure after giving birth, she must make up the days of fasting but not the prayers.
And with Allaah lies all success and may Allaah send prayers and salutations upon our Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) and his family and his companions.
The Permanent Committee for Research and Fataawa
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Breastfeeding after menopause is treated the same as breast feeding in earlier years
Breastfeeding after menopause is treated the same as breast feeding in earlier years
Question: What is the ruling concerning a woman who has reached the age of menopause and she breast feeds a child five sucklings or more during the first two years of that child's life. Does this breast feeding make them illegal for each other [and all the other ramifications], giving him a foster father even though the breast feeding woman may be without a husband?
Response: Breastfeeding makes forbidden what blood relations make forbidden. Therefore, the breastfeeding mentioned in the question, five sucklings in the first two years, makes the woman a [breast feeding] mother to that child due to that breastfeeding. This is based on the generality of the Qur.aanic verse:
{[Forbidden to you for marriage are] your foster mother who gave you suck}, [Soorah an-Nisaa., Aayah 23]
Even if the milk was produced after she reached the age of menopause, the ruling is the same. If that woman was married, the child would be her [foster] child and the son of the one whom the milk is ascribed to. If she was not married, perhaps she was not married and produced milk, then she is the [foster] mother of that child and he has no foster father.
Do not consider it strange that one may have a milking mother and not a foster father. Also, do not consider it strange that one may have a foster father but no foster mother. An example of the first case is where a woman gave two sucklings to a child, the milk that was the result of her first husband. Then she separated from that husband and married another after her waiting period expired. She becomes pregnant and has a child from the second husband. She then suckles her foster child again for the remainder of the suckling amount [with the milk that is the result of a child with the second husband]. She now has become that child's foster mother due to the five sucklings but he has no foster father because he did not suckle at least five sucklings that were the result of one man with the woman. As for the second case, this is where the child has a foster father but no foster mother . An example is where a man has two wives. One of them suckles the child twice and the other suckles the child three times. In that case, he will be a foster child of the husband since he was breast fed over five times from milk that was the result of intercourse with him. But he will not have a foster mother because neither the first nor the second woman suckled him the minimum amount of times required.
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
If a woman's husband dies after the marriage contract but before consumation, she must still observe the waiting-mourning period
If a woman's husband dies after the marriage contract but before consumation, she must still observe the waiting-mourning period
Question: A man married a woman and died before consummation, does she still have to observe the waiting mourning period?
Response: The woman whose husband dies after the marriage contract yet before consummation must still observe the waiting mourning period because simply by the conclusion of the contract she becomes his wife and falls under the command of the verse:
{Those of you who die and leave wives behind, they [the wives] shall wait for four months and ten days}, Soorah al-Baqarah, Aayah 234.
She also falls under the hadeeth that al-Bukhaaree and Muslim recorded in which the Messenger of Allaah (sal-Allaahu 'alayhe wa sallam) said:
((It is not allowed for a woman to mourn for a dead person for more than three days-- except if it is for her husband, in which case it is for four months and ten days)). Ahmad and the compilers of the Sunan recorded that the Messenger of Allaah (sal-Allaahu 'alayhe wa sallam) decreed concerning Buru bint Washiq, a woman whose husband had died before consummation, that she must observe the waiting period and that she was entitled to inheritance from him.
And with Allaah lies all success and may Allaah send prayers and salutations upon our Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) and his family and his companions.
The Permanent Committee for Islaamic Research and Fataawa
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
May a student whose husband dies continue her studies during her mourning period?
May a student whose husband dies continue her studies during her mourning period?
Question: A woman's husband died and now she must observe the mourning-waiting period while she is a student. May she continue her studies or not?
Response: It is obligatory upon the widow to observe the waiting and mourning period in the house she was living in when her husband died. This is for a period of four months and ten days. She may not stay anywhere else but there. She must avoid anything that beautifies her and makes her attractive, including perfume, kohl, attractive clothing and so forth. It is allowed for her to go out during the day if there is a need to do so. Therefore, the student in question may go out to attend her classes due to the need for such. However, she must do so while avoiding everything that a mourning woman must avoid and which may attract men and attract them to propose to her.
And with Allaah lies all success and may Allaah send prayers and salutations upon our Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) and his family and his companions.
The Permanent Committee for Islaamic Research and Fataawa
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Does the elderly woman mourn and what is the ruling concerning that?
Does the elderly woman mourn and what is the ruling concerning that?
Question: A man died and his wife was elderly, over seventy years old, with little ability to think and no servant. He died while she was still married to him. Does she have to go through the mourning period like others? What is the wisdom behind such an act if someone is old like her? Why then is it that the pregnant woman mourns only until she gives birth, implying that the mourning period is just to make certain that the woman is or is not pregnant? In a case like this woman, that possibility is not present.
Response: The woman mentioned in the question goes through the mourning period of four months and ten days since she falls under the generality of Allaah's words:
{Those of you who die and leave wives behind, they [the wives] shall wait for four months and ten days}, Soorah al-Baqarah, Aayah 234.
From the Sharee'ah wisdom of the waiting period and mourning even if the woman is old and could not possibly be pregnant is: honoring the seriousness of the marriage contract, raising the status and demonstrating the honorableness of the marriage, and fulfilling the rights of the husband, and showing the effects of one's loss by not beautifying or adorning oneself. Therefore, her mourning in that case is more than her mourning in the case of the death of a father or child.
The ruling concerning a pregnant woman is until she gives birth based on the generality of Allaah's statement:
{For those who are pregnant, their waiting period is until they deliver}, Soorah at-Talaaq, Aayah 4.
This verse particularises the generality of the other verse:
{Those of you who die and leave wives behind, they [the wives] shall wait for four months and ten days}, Soorah al-Baqarah, Aayah 234.
A wisdom behind relating the end of the waiting period to giving birth is that the pregnancy is the right of the first husband. If she gets married after the first husband's death or other [type of separation from him] and she is pregnant, then the second husband may be mixing his sperm with another man's. This is not allowed due to the statement of the Prophet (sal-Allaahu 'alayhe wa sallam):
((It is not allowed for a Muslim man who believes in Allaah and the Hereafter to water what another has sown with his water [that is, to have intercourse with a woman impregnated by another man)). This was recorded by Imam Ahmad, Abu Daawood and Ibn Hibban on the authority of Ruwayfee ibn Thaabit al-Ansaaree.
It is obligatory upon a Muslim to apply the laws of the Sharee'ah regardless of whether he knows the wisdom behind then or not. He must have belief that Allaah regulates what is best and proper in His Law and His Decrees. However, if Allaah blesses one with the knowledge of the wisdom, then that is light upon light and goodness in addition to goodness.
And with Allaah lies all success and may Allaah send prayers and salutations upon our Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) and his family and his companions.
The Permanent Committee for Islaamic Research and Fataawa
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Ruling concerning high-heeled shoes
Ruling concerning high-heeled shoes
Question: What is the Islaamic ruling concerning wearing high-heeled shoes?
Response: The least that can be said is that it is disliked.
First, it is a kind of deception because it makes the woman look taller than she is.
Second, it is dangerous for the woman because it is easy to fall in them.
Third, it has negative health consequences as the doctors have concluded.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Co-operating with non-Muslims
Co-operating with non-Muslims
Question: A brother from the Philippines asks, "One of the methods used in converting Muslims to Christianity in the Philippines nowadays is, that material and spiritual help is given by priests to the Imaam of the masjid and his particular group. In return, the Christian priest is allowed to give a weekly talk to a mixture of Muslims and Christians instead of the Friday Khutbah, What can we do to deal with this?"
Response: It is incumbent upon those who are in positions of responsibility amongst the Muslims, scholars and so forth, to intervene and to stop these people achieving their goals. They must expend what they can in order to help the Muslims and to remove the need for them to turn to their enemy for help. They must be aware of the schemes and plots of the enemy and encourage patience in such situations and urge the Muslims to be distant from their enemies and not to mix with them nor to listen to their sermons because they call to the fire while the people of Islaam call to paradise.
The Muslim possessed of faith must be steadfast and anticipate Allaah's reward in his affliction. He must be patient with whatever hardship or need might afflict him until he finds relief from it. It is for the other Muslims to support, be charitable and do good to those Muslims who are in need, cooperating and helping in anyway they can, even it is with something small. When small amounts are added together they multiply and become large. If one person provides what he can and another whatever he is able, in this way great good can be accumulated. Muslims in need can then benefit from it and become independent from their enemies who are always ready and waiting for a calamity to befall the Muslims and who spend their wealth in order to lead them to the Fire. We ask Allaah for safety from it!
It is also important that the leaders of the Muslim minorities and their helpers write to those who they consider to be benevolent and to clarify to them the needs of their poor brothers. They should also seek help from the leaders of Islaamic centres and organisations in order that cooperation might be to the fullest. Everyone must cooperate in what is good and righteous and in providing lawful sustenance, which will help them in obedience to Allaah in their own countries. They should give importance to earning through industry that will benefit them or through any other wholesome work that will free them from dependence upon their enemies.
In an authentic hadeeth the Messenger of Allaah (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((Strive for what benefits you, seek help from Allaah, and do not be impotent and incapable)).
The believer should, therefore, move and strive to obtain his provision in a lawful way in order that he frees himself from the need to turn to Allaah's enemy for help.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
al-Aqalliyaat al-Muslimah - Page 28, Fatwa No.3
Calling non-Muslims "brother" or "sister"
Calling non-Muslims "brother" or "sister"
Question: When I invite non-Muslims to Islaam, I find that I sometimes call them "sister" and "brother" or I say "O brothers" meaning by that the human brotherhood. I do this in order to soften their hearts and to attract them to listen to what I have to say. Is there anything wrong in doing this?
Response: There is no doubt that it is not permissible to call the non-Muslims "brothers" because Allaah (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) says:
{Verily, the believers are brothers} [Soorah Hujaraat, Aayah 10].
Brotherhood, therefore, is in faith. If, however, he were a brother by descent, it would be acceptable. Allaah (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) says:
{And to 'Aad (We sent) their brother Hood} [Soorah Hood, Aayah 50].
{And to Madyan (We sent) their brother Shu'ayban} [Soorah Hood, Aayah 84]. And similar such verses.
This is acceptable when there is a fraternal relationship by lineage. However, he is not your brother in religion. Allaah, the Sublime, said to Nooh, concerning his son:
{Verily, he is not of your family} [Soorah Hood, Aayah 46].
However, it is possible to find a way around this. He shouldn't say, "Oh my brother" but rather he should say, "Oh brother" meaning by this, that he is brother to whoever is his brother, either in religion or through descent. In this way, he can attract him and soften his heart while not attributing brotherhood to himself. Hinting or allusion is a way out of lying.
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
al-Aqalliyaat al-Muslimah - Page 75, Fatwa No.15
Marrying non-Muslim Women
Marrying non-Muslim Women
Question: What is your advice concerning some Muslim minorities marrying disbelieving women who do not believe in the existence of a Creator and what is the effect of that upon the children?
Response: My advice to all Muslims is that they should not marry anyone who is not a Muslim. A Muslim man should do his utmost to marry a Muslim woman because that will be good for him, both in the life of this world and in the Hereafter and good for his children as well. With regards to marrying kuffaar, if they are not from the People of the Book, the Jews and Christians, then, according to clear text and consensus of the scholars, it is forbidden. According to a consensus of the scholars, it is not permitted for a Muslim to marry Buddhists, communists, atheists and so forth. Allaah (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) says:
{And do not marry idolatresses until they believe} [Soorah al-Baqarah, Aayah 221]
Concerning the Settlement of Hudaybiyah, Allaah (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) ordered that the believing women, who came seeking emigration to the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) should not be returned to their disbelieving husbands. He (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) says:
{They are not lawful (wives) for the disbelievers nor are the disbelievers lawful (husbands) for them} [Soorah al-Mumtahinah, Aayah 10]
It is, therefore, not permitted for a Muslim to ever marry a kaafir woman unless she is from the People of the Book and they are the Jews and Christians only. They are considered the People of the Book if they have remained upon the teachings of their Book. However, if they have become communists or deny the existence of a Creator, they are no longer People of the Book, but rather they have become atheists. If, however, they are from the People of the Book, adhere to the teachings of Christianity or Judaism and believe in Allaah and the Resurrection, then they can be married. This is provided that they are known to be chaste and it is known that they do not commit adultery or fornication. Allaah has made lawful for us chaste women from the People of the Book. He (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) says:
{All good things are made lawful for you this day. The food of the People of the Book is lawful to you and your food is lawful to them. (Lawful to you in marriage) are chaste women from the believers and chaste women from those who were given the Scripture (Jews and Christians) before you, provided that you give them their dowries and live in honour with them, neither committing fornication nor taking them as mistresses...} [Soorah al-Maa'idah, Aayah 5]
Allaah has made lawful for Muslims chaste and virtuous women who are free and not slaves. There is no harm, therefore, in marrying women from the People of the Book, if the need arises. However, to refrain from doing so and to marry Muslim women is preferable and advisable, especially nowadays.
The risk involved in marrying them these days is greater because they have control and power over husbands and might, therefore, lead their husbands or their children to kufr in Allaah. My advice to all my brothers everywhere is, that they should not marry non-Muslim women and that they should be aware of the risks and end result of doing so. Rather, they should do their utmost to marry Muslim women and to educate and guide them to what is good. This is safer, especially at this time when evil and wickedness has increased. The kuffaar have today gained the upper hand over the Muslims, and women in the countries of the kuffaar have power and authority and dominate their Muslim husbands and try to attract them and their children to their false religion.
And there is no power, no strength except with Allaah!
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
al-Aqalliyaat al-Muslimah - Page 29, Fatwa No.5
If a woman advised her husband
If a woman advised her husband
Question: If a woman advised her husband who is lazy with respect to performing the prayers in the mosque and she shows her anger towards him, is she being sinful because of his greater right over her?
Response: There is no sin upon a woman if she advises her husband when he performs something that Allaah has forbidden, such as being lazy with respect to performing the prayer with the congregation, drinking alcohol or having entertainment during the night. In fact, she will be rewarded. The advice should be in a good and kind way. In this way, it will more likely be accepted and benefited from.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Husband prevents wife from going to her parent's house
Husband prevents wife from going to her parent's house
Question: What is the ruling about the man who prevents his wife from going to her parent's house if they cause problems and interfere in their married life? What is the least that is required for the wife to maintain her family ties? Is it enough to write (letters) and call (telephone) only?
Response: Yes, the man has the right to prevent his wife from going to her parent's house if doing so results in badly affecting her religion or the rights of her husband. This is because preventing her from going to them in these circumstances is prevention against (these) bad effects. It is possible for the woman to contact her parents without going to them in these circumstances, such as by way of (writing) letters or calling them by telephone, if by doing so does not result in any danger. As He (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) said:
{So keep your duty to Allaah and fear Him as much as you can}, [Soorah at-Taghaabun, Aayah 16].
And Allaah knows Best.
There is a severe warning to the one who interferes in the wife's upholding of her husand's rights and turns her against him. It is mentioned in a hadeeth:
((Cursed are those who turn the woman against her husband)), [Abu Dawood],
...and it's meaning is badly affecting her behaviour towards him and causing disobedience towards him.
And it is obligatory for the family of the wife to take care and encourage the good relations between her and her husband because that is in her interests and their interests.
Shaykh Ibn al-Fowzaan
al-Muntaqaa min Fataawa Fadheelatush-Shaykh Saalih Ibn Fowzaan - Volume 3, Page 246, Fatwa No. 372
What are the responsibilities of a married women towards her parents? Answer :
What are the responsibilities of a married women towards her parents?
Answer :
Praise be to Allaah.
The responsibilities of a married woman towards her parents are like those of any other woman. The rights of the parents remain both before and after marriage, but obedience to the husband takes precedence over obedience to the parents if there is a conflict.
If the command of the parents conflicts with the command of the husband, then what takes precedence is the command of the husband. But the Muslim husband and the Muslim wife must strive to avoid conflict with the parents, and strive to achieve harmony between them and their parents.
One of the matters to which the married woman should pay attention concerning her parents is that she should strive to visit them from time to time, and give them appropriate gifts even if they have no real material value. She should try to avoid letting her children’s misbehaviour annoy them when visiting them, and avoid telling them about marital disagreements.
Shaykh Muhammad al-Duwaysh
If her parents need money and she is able to spend on them, then it is obligatory for her to spend on them as much as she is able to. If she does not have money of her own, but she intercedes with her husband, if he has money, to help her parents, then she will be rewarded for that in sha Allah. This is part of honouring her parents.
Is the marriage contracting valid if the woman is menstruating?
Is the marriage contracting valid if the woman is menstruating?
Question: I am a young woman who finalised my marriage contract with a young man some time ago. It happened that it occurred on a day in which I was having my menses. I did not agree to the contract until I asked the official about this matter and he said that such a marriage is valid and legal. However, I am not satisfied with that contract. I want you to help me by telling me if that contract was correct or not? Is it a must that I repeat the contract at a time when I am not on my menses?
Response: Performing a marriage contract with a woman while she is menstruating is permissible and valid. There is no harm in it. The basic ruling concerning contracts is that of permissibility and legality unless there is evidence to show that it is not allowed. There is no evidence to show that one may not finalize a marriage contract while the woman is menstruating. Therefore, the aforementioned contract is sound. There is no harm in it.
One must also understand and know the difference between the marriage contract and divorce. Divorce is not permissible while the woman is menstruating. In fact, it is forbidden. The Messenger of Allaah (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) became angry when it reached him that 'Abdullaah ibn 'Umar ibn al-Khattaab had divorced his wife while she was menstruating. The Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) ordered that he go back to her and not touch her until she became pure, had her menses again and then became pure again. Then he could afterwards remain with her or divorce her. Furthermore, Allaah has stated:
{O Prophet! When you divorce women, divorce them at their prescribed periods (iddah) and count (accurately) their periods. And fear Allaah your Lord. And turn them not out of their [husband's] homes, nor shall they [themselves] leave, except in cases where they are guilty of open illegal sexual intercourse. Those are the set limits of Allaah. Whosoever transgresses the set limits of Allaah, then indeed he has wronged himself}, [Soorah at-Talaaq, Aayah 1].
So it is not allowed for a man to divorce his wife while she is menstruating. He also cannot divorce her during a time of purity in which they had had sexual intercourse, unless it is clear that she is pregnant. If it is clear that she is pregnant, he may divorce her whenever he wishes and that divorce will take effect. It is very strange that among the masses there is a common misconception that a divorce stated while the woman is pregnant does not take effect. This is not correct. The divorce of a pregnant woman does take effect. In fact, the rules are more liberal concerning it. For example, it is permissible for a man to divorce his pregnant wife even if he had just recently had sexual intercourse with her. This is not so for woman who is not known to be pregnant. If he has intercourse with her, he must wait until her next menses and their finishing or it becomes clear that she is pregnant before he pronounces divorce. In Soorah at-Talaaq, Allaah states:
{For those who are pregnant, their waiting period is until they deliver}, [Soorah at-Talaaq, Aayah 4].
This is a clear indication that such a divorce does take effect. Furthermore, in some of the hadeeth of ibn 'Umar, it is narrated that the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((Order him to return to his wife and then divorce her when she is pure [of her menses] or she is pregnant)).
If it is clear that the marriage contract done while the woman is menstruating is a sound marriage contract, I still feel that the man should not enter upon the woman [be with her alone] until her menses come to an end. This is because if he does join her before she becomes pure, it is feared that he may engage in an act which is forbidden while she is menstruating, especially if he is not able to control himself. Especially if he is a young man, he should wait until she becomes pure, at a time when he is able to enjoy her company by sexual intercourse.
Allaah knows best.
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Leaving a wedding if munkar (evil) actions start
Leaving a wedding if munkar (evil) actions start
Question: Is it obligatory to leave a wedding if [such] (evil) actions start, and that is after having advised and made clear the issue to them? Often, the wedding could be that of a relative and if one who understood this to be an evil act was to leave, then he would be regarded as one who breaks off (family) ties. With this, advise us with a written fatwa since they (the relatives) are requesting this, and may Allaah protect and preserve you.
Response: If you saw/witnessed any munkar (evil act) whilst in attendance, then advise them. And as a result, they should become upright and leave the evil act. Otherwise it is obligatory for you to leave the place and you should not be concerned with whoever becomes angry (as a result) because of that, since obedience to Allaah and His Messenger is uppermost. And if it is possible for any of you to explain this to those who became angry (at your departure).
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
al-Fataawa al-Malaah fee Munkaraat al-Afraah, page 28, 25/9/1413 A.H.
Ruling concerning having wedding parties in hotels
Ruling concerning having wedding parties in hotels
Question: What is your opinion about the parties that are held in hotels?
Response: The parties that are held in hotels have many things wrong about them and may be criticised for many reasons.
First, they are usually done extravagantly and beyond what is needed;
Second, this leads to the extra financial burden of having wedding parties in hotels and the presence of people for whom there is no need;
Third, it may lead to mixing between the men and women of the hotel and others. This mixing is a disgraceful evil.
This is why the leading scholars issued a decree and gave it to the King advising him not to allow parties and wedding parties to be held in hotels. Instead, they said, the wedding parties should be held in the houses and hotels should not be hired, as such wedding parties lead to lots of evil. Similar is the case with the halls that are rented for a great deal of money. This advice was all concluded out of concern for the people, economic considerations, avoiding of extravagance and luxury. Also, this will allow those who are of the middle class to be able to afford to get married and will not be a great burden upon them. If they see their cousin or relative getting married in an expensive hotel party, he must compete with him or do something similar. This will drive him to borrow money. Otherwise, he may have to delay his marriage out of fear of such heavy expenses.
My advice to all Muslim brethren is that they should not hold their wedding parties in such hotels nor in the expensive halls that are rented for that purpose. They should hold them in inexpensive halls or not hold them in the halls at all. To hold them in the houses is preferred anyway. Or one could hold them in his relatives' house if that is possible.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Concerning polygamy
Concerning polygamy
Question: Some people say that marrying more than one wife is not allowed unless a person has orphans under his care and he fears that he will not do justice between them. Then he may marry their mother or one of her daughters. For evidence, they quote the verse:
{And if you fear that you shall not be able to deal justly with the orphan-girls, then marry women of your choice, two, three or four...}, [Soorah an-Nisaa., Aayah 3).
Response: This statement is false.
The meaning of the verse is that if a person has under his care an orphan and he fears that he will not give her the proper amount of dower, then he should marry other women, for there are many women and Allaah will not make things difficult for him. The verse points to the legality of marrying two, three or four wives. This is allowed because it leads to more chastity, lowering of eyesight and guarding of the private parts.
Furthermore, that is a cause for more children and the chastity of more women, as well as them being treated properly and cared for. There is no doubt that the woman who has one-half of a husband or one-third or one-fourth is better off than the one who has no husband at all. However, one must meet the condition of justice among the wives and the ability to take care of and tend to the wives. If a person fears that he will not do justice, then he may only many one wife in addition to having slaves. The practice of the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) indicates and stresses that. When he died, he had nine wives. And Allaah says about him:
{Indeed in the Messenger of Allaah you have a good example to follow}, [Soorah al-Ahzaab, Aayah 21].
The Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) made it clear to his Nation that it was allowed for him to have more than four wives. Therefore, following his example on this point would mean taking four wives or less. Beyond four wives is something that is specific for the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) only.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
He has AIDS – can he marry someone who has the same disease
Question :
I have a question similiar to the Question Reference #11137, (Ruling on marrying one’s daughter to an AIDS patient). I myself am in a similiar situation wherein I want to marry a sister and she has been diagnosed with the HIV virus. However her levels of the virus are so low that they are undetectible. She has been married before and has a 4 year old son, both of whom have not contracted the virus. In reference to marrying someone with the HIV virus I understand that some scholars say that it is not permissible, and some say other wise. In your answer to the above question you say it's okay given the parties are aware of it. My question is:
1. Can she marry if the relations she has are protected?
2. Can she marry if both people agree not to have intercourse?
3. Can a man marry her to have her rights of marriage be fulfilled for the pleasure of Allah?.
Answer :
Praise be to Allaah.
In the answer to question no. 11137 we stated the ruling on marriage of one who has AIDS, and we said: He should not marry until he has explained his situation and said, “I have such and such a disease.” If they agree to that then all well and good, otherwise the marriage should not go ahead, because if he conceals his situation from them, then he has deceived them and cheated them, and this woman may transmit the disease to her husband, or the husband may transmit it to his wife, and it may be transmitted to their children after that. But if she agrees to marry you and accepts the will and decree of Allaah, there is nothing wrong with that.
There is nothing wrong with the brother who asked this question marrying a woman who is healthy or sick, so long as you explain your medical situation. If they agree, and you want to have intercourse, then you can use condoms.
Dr ‘Abd-Allaah al-Haqeel – whom I consulted and who is the head of the Stomach Diseases section in the Medical College of the King Sa’ood University – said:
Marriage of an AIDS patient is a serious problem, because the main cause of the transmission of this disease is sexual contact. Using a condom gives a high degree of protection but the other party – man or woman, must be fully aware of the expected consequences.
Al-Watan newspaper, issue no. 522, 2nd year – Tuesday 21 Dhu’l-Hijjah AH/ 5 March 202 CE.
Married life is not only about intercourse; you could marry this woman if you both agree not to have intercourse, for a man’s need for a woman, and vice versa, is not just the matter of sexual needs. There are the matters of caring for one another, protection, spending, love and helping one another to obey Allaah. The love of one party for the other, so that the latter may inherit, may the reason for marriage, such as marriage to a minor who is not able for intercourse. Such a marriage is valid according to sharee’ah, even if no intercourse takes place. Based on this, there is no reason why you should not get married and agree not to have intercourse.
The majority of scholars stated that it is permissible for a Muslim to get married during his final illness, if he is mature and of sound mind; what need for intercourse is there in this case for which he should get married?
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about a sick person who got married whilst he was sick – is this marriage contract valid?
He replied:
The marriage of a sick person is valid, and the wife inherits from him, according to the majority of Muslim scholars among the Sahaabah and Taabi’een, and she is only entitled to a mahr like that of her peers; she is not entitled to more than that, according to scholarly consensus. End quote.
Al-Fataawa al-Kubra, 3/99
He also said (5/466):
The marriage of a sick person during his final illness is valid, and the wife inherits from him, according to the majority of scholars among the Sahaabah and Taabi’een, but she is not entitled to anything other than the mahr of her peers, and no more than that, according to consensus. End quote.
And Allaah knows best.
Ruling concerning a woman looking at men
Ruling concerning a woman looking at men
Question: What is the ruling concerning a woman looking at men on television or casual looks in the streets?
Response: A woman looking at a man must be one of two cases, regardless of whether it be on television or otherwise.
First is a look with lust. This is forbidden as it contains evil and temptation.
Second is a simple look free of any kind of lust and desire. There is no harm in that kind of look according to the correct opinion of the scholars.
It is permissible because it is confirmed in the Saheehs of al-Bukhaaree and Muslim that 'Aa.ishah watched the Abbysinians doing their war dance. The Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) was concealing her from them and he approved of what she was doing. Furthermore, women walk in the streets and they look at men although they are wearing hijaab.
A woman may look at a man even though he does not see her. However, this is conditional that the look not be accompanied with lust, desire or temptation. If it is a look of lust or temptation, then it is forbidden regardless of whether it be on television or otherwise.
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Knowing what is in the womb
Knowing what is in the womb
Question: In the December 1975 edition of "al-'Arabee" number 205, page 15, it is alleged under the question and answer column that it is man who decides the gender of the fetus. Is there anyone other than Allaah who knows the unseen? What is the Islaamic ruling on this issue?
Response: First of all, it is Allaah alone Who fashions the fetus in the womb the way He wishes. He either makes it female or male, perfect or deformed, and so on. No one else other than Allaah can do that. He says:
{It is He Who fashions you in the wombs as He wills. There is no true God except He, the Almighty, the All-Wise}, [Soorah Aal-'Imraan, Aayah 6]
And He says:
{To Allaah belongs dominion of the heavens and the earth. He creates what He wills. He gives females to whoever He wills and males to whoever He wills. Or He gives them twins of males and females, and makes whoever He wills barren. He is the All-Knower, All-Powerful}, [Soorah ash-Shooraa, Aayaat 49-50]
Allaah the Exalted, is the only Proprietor of the heaven and the earth. It is up to Him to create whatever He wills, and fashions the fetus in the womb as he likes, be it male or female, perfect or deformed, beautiful or ugly, or any other fetal conditions. He is alone, not a partner nor anyone else, Who does so.
A claim that a husband, a doctor, or a philosopher can decide the sex of the fetus is groundless. All the husband can do is to wait for his wife's fertility period to have intercourse with her, for the hope of pregnancy. He may have what he wants fulfilled by the Decree of Allaah. Pregnancy may not take place for one reason or another, or due to a blockage in the fallopian tubes or inferility. Or it may be that Allaah wants to test the endurance of his servants.
This means that material means themselves have no effect on the case; rather, they work by the Will of Allaah.
Fertilisation is a thing belonging to the universal Will of Allaah, and the human can only do the action with the Will of Allaah.
As for the disposal of the affairs, the formation, and the arranging of the causes, all are restricted to Allaah alone. He who contemplates the conditions of people, their claims and lies out of ignorance and excessive estimation of modern sciences, surely exceeds the limits of trusting the material means. He who evaluates the matters properly will be able to distinguish between what is restricted to Allaah alone, and those which Allaah allowed the servant to do through His Decree.
And with Allaah lies all success and may Allaah send prayers and salutations upon our Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) and his family and his companions.
The Permanent Committee for Islaamic Research and Fataawa
Fataawa Islaamiyyah - Volume 1, Page 40
A man assisting a woman during the birth process
A man assisting a woman during the birth process
Question: What is the ruling regarding a man assisting a woman whilst she is giving birth?
Response: In principle, it is not permissible to say the admitting of a woman to hospital to give birth is outright permissible, rather it is imperative to define the constraints (within which it is permissible).
So if the female doctor is of the opinion, based upon her knowledge, that this pregnant woman will not be having a natural birth, and she could quite possibly require a caesarean, then in this case she is to be transferred to the hospital. As for a natural birth, then it is not permissible for her to leave her home and be admitted to the hospital simply to have a natural birth.
If the woman is in (genuine) need of being admitted to the hospital, then it is obligatory that a male doctor is not appointed to assist her in the birth process. However, if one (female doctor) is not present, then there is no harm, or rather, if she is in a dangerous state and a female doctor is not present, then it is obligatory that a male doctor assist her (during the birth process).
And this response is derived from two principles from the principles of usool al-fiqh (fundamentals of Islaamic jurisprudence), and they are:
1) Necessities permit the forbidden.
2) A necessity is assessed in accordance to its extent.
So if the woman is able to give birth in her home, then it is not permissible for her to go to the hospital; (and) if she is in need – such as there being no-one to assist her in the birth process – then a female doctor can be appointed, and if there is none present, then a male doctor can be appointed (in her place).
So in principle, it is not permissible for a woman to leave her home except where necessary, as is mentioned in Saheeh al-Bukhaaree, when the (following) statement of Allaah was revealed:
{And stay in your houses, and do not display yourselves like that of the times of ignorance}, [Soorah al-Ahzaab, Aayah 33]
And he (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((And Allaah has permitted you to go out for your needs/necessities)), [Saheeh al-Bukhaaree - Volume 1, Hadeeth Reference 40; Saheeh Muslim – Volume 4, Hadeeth Reference 1709]
Shaykh al-Albaanee
Fataawa Muhimmah li-Nisaa. al-Ummah – Page 240
Marriage with the intention of divorcing after a period of time
Marriage with the intention of divorcing after a period of time
Question: A person is going abroad to study and he wants to protect his chastity there by getting married for a specific period of time. Afterwards, he will divorce his wife although he does not inform her that he is planning on divorcing after a specific time period. What is the ruling concerning such behavior?
Response: Marriage with the intention of divorce must fall into one of two cases:
First, it is explicitly stipulated in the marriage contract that the marriage is for a month, year, until he finishes his studies and so forth. This is known as muta. This is forbidden.
The second case is where the person has that as his intention [in his heart] but it is not put as a stipulation in the contract. The widespread opinion among the Hanbalis is that that is forbidden and the contract is void. They say that what is intended is equivalent to what is actually stipulated, since the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((Actions are based on intentions and for everyone is what he intended)).
They also say that if a man marries and plans on divorcing a thrice-divorced woman simply in order to make her permissible for previous husband, that marriage is not valid even if what was intended is not stipulated in the marriage contract. Again, this is what is intended is like what is stipulated. So if the intention of making the wife "legal" for her previous husband makes the contract null and void, the intention to perform [something similar to] muta also makes the contract null and void. This is the opinion of the Hanbalis.
The second opinion among the scholars is that it is permissible for the man to marry that woman with the intention that he will divorce her after he leaves her land, such as those who go to the West to study or for other purposes. They say that it is sound because it is not stipulated in the contract and this distinguishes it from muta. Furthermore, in the case of muta, as soon as the period finishes, the two are separated whether they still want that or not. In this case, though, it could be the case that he desires his wife and decides to remain with her. This is one of the opinions held by Shaykh al-Islaam Ibn Taymiyyah.
In my opinion, such a marriage is not muta since it does not meet the definition of muta. However, it is still forbidden since it is a type of deception of the wife and her family. The Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) has forbidden deception and mendacity. If the woman knew that the man only intends to be married with her for that specific time, she would not agree to the marriage nor would her family. In the same way, he would not be pleased to marry his daughter to a man who intends to divorce her when he has fulfilled his needs from her. How can he be pleased with doing to others what he would not be pleased to have done to himself? This goes against the foundations of faith. The Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) has stated:
((None of you truly believes until he loves for his brother what he loves for himself)).
I have also heard that this opinion has led some people to do something that none of the scholars would be in agreement with. That is, some people travel to such lands with the sole purpose of performing such a marriage and then they return to their countries. This is also a greatly forbidden act. Therefore, one must close the door that leads to such a possible practice. Furthermore, the act contains deception and cheating. And it opens a very dangerous door since people, in general, are ignorant and most of the people's desires will not keep them from violating what Allaah has prohibited.
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Marriage comes first
Marriage comes first
Question: A common custom among the people nowadays is for a woman or her father to refuse a man's proposal so that she may finish high school, college or some specific amount of studying. What is the ruling concerning that? What is your advice for those who fall into that trap? Sometimes, the woman reaches the age of thirty or more and she has yet to get married!
Response: My advice to all young men and young women is to get married quickly if the means to it are made possible for you. This is because the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) has said:
((O youthful people, if any of you have the means to, he should get married, as it lowers the eyesight and protects the private parts. Those who have not the ability to do so should fast, as it will be a shield for him)). This was recorded by al-Bukhaaree and Muslim.
The Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) also said:
((If one whose religion and character pleases you proposes to you, you should marry him. If you do not do so, them will be tribulations in the land and great evil)). This was recorded by at-Tirmidhee with a hasan chain.
The Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) also said:
((Marry the child-bearing, loving woman for I shall outnumber the peoples by you on the Day of Resurrection)). This was recorded by Ahmad and graded Saheeh by ibn Hibban.
Therefore, there are many benefits to marriage which the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) alluded to, including lowering the gaze, protecting the private parts, increasing the numbers of the Muslim Nation and being saved from great evil and misfortune.
May Allaah grant to all what is best for their religion and worldly lives. He is All-Hearing, Close.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
If someone is known not to perform the prayers in congregation, one should not marry him
If someone is known not to perform the prayers in congregation, one should not marry him
Question: A young man came to me asking for my sister's hand in marriage. I inquired about him and discovered that he does not perform the prayer in congregation. Therefore, we differed about whether or not we should allow this marriage to take place. My brother said: "Marry him for perhaps Allaah will guide him." However, my father refused. I want to know the Islaamic ruling concerning this matter.
Response: If someone is known not to pray in congregation, then he should not be wedded to. This is because not praying in congregation is an open, public display of disobedience to Allaah. This is one of the characteristics of the people of hypocrisy and it is one of the steps that leads to abandoning the prayer in totality. And abandoning the prayer completely is a greater form of kufr [that takes one out of the fold of Islaam]. Allaah has stated:
{Verily, the hypocrites seek to deceive Allaah, but it is He who deceives them. And when they stand to pray, they stand with laziness}, [Soorah an-Nisaa., Aayah 142].
The Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((The hardest prayers upon the hypocrites are the 'Ishaa. Prayers and the Fajr Prayers. If they knew what they had [of reward and blessings], they would come to them even if they had to crawl)). This was recorded by al-Bukhaaree and Muslim.
In this regard, ibn Mas'ood said: "During our time, none would lag behind the prayer in congregation except for the hypocrite who was well-known for his hypocrisy." This was recorded by Muslim in his Saheeh. It is also confirmed that the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((The covenant between us and them is the prayer. Whoever abandons it has committed kufr (infidelity))). This was recorded by Ahmad and the compilers of the Sunan collections with a Saheeh chain.
The Messenger of Allaah (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) also said:
((Between a man and disbelief and polytheism is the abandoning of the prayer)). This was recorded by Imam Muslim in his Saheeh.
There is no doubt that abandoning the prayer in congregation is one of the means that leads to abandoning the prayer in its totality, as we mentioned earlier.
We ask Allaah for guidance for all of us.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Choosing a husband
Choosing a husband
Question: What are the most important considerations a young lady should make when choosing a husband? If she refuses someone simply for economic or worldly reasons, will that expose her to the punishment of Allaah?
Response: The most important attributes that a woman must look for in selecting a husband are character and piety. Wealth and lineage are secondary considerations. The most important aspect is that the proposed groom be a person of piety and proper behavior. The person of proper behaviour and piety will not do his wife wrong. Either he will keep her in a way that is proper or he will leave her to go free in the best way.
Furthermore, the person of religion and behavior may be a blessing for her and her children. She may learn manners and religion from him. If he does not have those characteristics, she should stay away from him, especially if he is one of those who is lax with respect to performing the prayers or if he is known to drink alcohol, may Allaah save us. As for those who never pray, they are disbelievers. Believing women are not permissible for them nor are they permissible for the believing women. The important point is that the woman should stress character and piety. If he is also of a noble lineage, that is to be preferred. This is due to the Messenger of Allaah's (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) statement:
((If a person whose religion and character you approve of comes to you, then marry him)).
However, if he is also suitable [in other ways, such as economics standing and so forth], that is better.
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Marriage from distant or non-relatives is preferred
Marriage from distant or non-relatives is preferred
Question: One of my relatives has come to me for the purpose of marriage but I heard that to marry from non-relatives or distant relatives is preferred for the sake of the future of the children and other reasons. What is your opinion on that matter?
Response: That principle has been stated by a number of scholars. It points to the fact that genetics and heredity has an effect. There is no doubt that genetics has an effect on the physical and psychological make-up of the person. This is shown in the hadeeth where a man came to the Messenger of Allaah (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) and said: "My wife has given birth to a black child." (He was opposing that child because all of his ascendants were of light skin.) The Messenger of Allaah (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) told him:
((Do you own camels?))
He said:"Yes." The Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((What color are they?))
He said:"Red." The Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) asked him:
((Is there a dusky one among them?))
He said:"Yes." The Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) then said:
((How has that come about?))
The man replied: "It is perhaps due to the strain to which it has reverted." So the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) told him:
((Perhaps that son of yours is due to the strain to which it has reverted)).
This is evidence that genetics has an effect and there is no doubt about that. However, the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) also said:
((A woman is married for [any of] four reasons: for her wealth, for her lineage, for her beauty or for her religion. So try to marry one who is religious, may your hands be smeared with dust)).
Therefore, the most important matter in proposing to a woman is her piety. The more religious she is and the more beautiful she is then the better she is, regardless if she be a close relative or distant [or non-] relative. The religious woman will protect the man's wealth, children, and house. Beauty fulfills his needs and lowers his gaze and he will not look to others.
And Allaah knows best.
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Ruling concerning a Christian man marrying a Muslim woman
Ruling concerning a Christian man marrying a Muslim woman
Question: What is the Islaamic ruling concerning a Christian man marrying a Muslim woman? If they have children, what is the ruling concerning those children in Islaamic law?
Response: The marriage of a Christian man to a Muslim woman is an invalid marriage. Allaah says in the Qur.aan:
{And give not [Muslim women] in marriage to idolaters until they believe}, [Soorah al-Baqarah, Aayah 221].
Therefore, it is not allowed for a disbeliever to marry a Muslim woman. Allaah also says:
{They [Muslim women] are not lawful for them [the disbelievers] nor are they [the disbelievers] lawful for them}, [Soorah al-Mumtahana, Aayah 10].
If he does marry her, the marriage is invalid. The children are the children of fornication. They are to be given to their mother and ascribed to her alone - unless that was done out of ignorance concerning such law. For ignorant people, the matter is different. In their case, the marriage is still invalid. However, the children will be ascribed to the father since the act was done out of ignorance. That is, if he was ignorant of the law and she was also, the marriage is still invalid but the children will be ascribed to their parents due to their ignorance and there was some doubtful aspect to their intercourse.
But if he knew the Islaamic ruling and she knew the Islaamic ruling and they were being lax and disrespectful of the law of Allaah, then the children are children of fornication. They will be ascribed to their mother and will not be ascribed to their father at all. The couple should be reprimanded and the penal punishment should be enforced upon him for having intercourse with a Muslim woman when he did not have the legal right to do so. This is what must be done if the Islaamic state has the ability to do it. If he becomes Muslim after that and Allaah guides him, then he can marry her with a new contract.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
A woman takes money from her husband without his knowledge
A woman takes money from her husband without his knowledge
Question: What is the legal ruling concerning seeking a divorce when proper relations become an impossibility? This is due to the following reasons:
First, my husband is ignorant and he does not recognise any rights for me. He curses me and my father and calls us Jews, Christians and Shee'ah. However, I was patient with his evil manners because of my child. But when I became ill with arthritis, I no longer had the ability to bear his behaviour. I began to hate him a great deal, to the point that I cannot stand even talking to him. I asked him for a divorce but he refused. Now I have been living with him for six years with my children and he treats me like a divorced woman or a woman who is not related to him. But he still refuses divorce. I beg for your answer to my question.
Response: If the situation is as you have just described, there is nothing wrong in seeking divorce. There is no harm also in you ransoming yourself by paying him some wealth in order for him to divorce you. This is due to his improper behaviour and wronging you by evil speech. If you think it feasible, for the sake of your children and your need for his maintenance as well as the children's, to be patient and advise him to behave properly and ask Allaah to guide him, there is great reward and a good end. We ask Allaah to guide him and make him firm in his religion.
This answer is assuming that he prays and does not curse the religion. If he does not pray or if he curses the religion, he is a disbeliever. Then it is not permissible for you to stay with him or allow him control over you. This is because cursing and ridiculing the religion is disbelief and straying. It is apostasy from Islaam according to the consensus of the scholars. This is based on Allaah's statement:
{Say: Was it Allaah, and His signs and His Messenger that you were mocking? Make no excuse! You have disbelieved after you had believed}, [Soorah at-Towbah, Aayah 65-66].
Also, abandoning the prayer is a greater form of disbelief, even if a person does not deny its obligation, according to the stronger opinion among the scholars. This is based on what has been confirmed from the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) in Saheeh Muslim from Jabir ibn 'Abdullaah that the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((Between a man and disbelief and polytheism is the abandoning of the prayer)).
Also, Imaam Ahmad and the compilers of the Sunan recorded with a Saheeh chain from Buraydah ibn al-Hasib that the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((The covenant between us and them is the prayer. Whoever abandons it has committed disbelief)).
There are also other evidences from the Qur.aan and Sunnah besides what we have mentioned.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Husband demands wife suck his penis (oral sex)
Husband demands wife suck his penis (oral sex)
Question: One of the sisters is asking, saying that she is a practising young woman who got married six months ago. (She says) her husband demands she suck his penis, and she asks if this is permissible or not?
Response: All praise is due to Allaah (alone). There is no doubt that (the request of) this practise from the husband of the questioner is a disgusting practise and obviously disliked. It also undermines the (good) manners between the husband and wife, and could possibly be a cause for (each partner) disliking (the other) and (leading to) separation (divorce).
'Aa.ishah (radhi-yallaahu 'anhaa) was one of the wives of the Messenger of Allaah (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam), and it has been narrated on her authority that:
((He (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) did not see this of her and she did not see this of him)). (i.e. they did not see each other's private parts, even though it is permisible).
As regards the ruling about this, then the least that can be said about it is that it is disliked, and Allaah knows best.
Shaykh 'Abdullaah ibn Munee'
Fataawa Muhimmah li-Nisaa. al-Ummah – Page 154
..........
Note: The basic ruling regarding the wife seeking pleasure of her husband's penis is that of permissibility, however, that which is feared is that this act may lead to possible oral intake of sperm or prostatic fluids. The Hanaabilah have indicated the permissibility of a wife kissing her husband's penis, as is mentioned in ((al-Insaaf)) of al-Maardeenee [Volume 8, Page 33], and this is the opinion of Ibn 'Aqeel and other than him. Also, Asbagh from the Maalikiyyah has indicated the permissibility of a man kissing his wife's vagina as is mentioned in ((Tafseer al-Qurtubee)) [Volume 12, Page 231].
Husband and wife looking at each others bodies
Husband and wife looking at each others bodies
Question: Is it permissible, according to the Sharee'ah, for a woman to look at the entire body of her husband, and for him to look at her with the intention of seeking enjoyment in that which is halaal?
Response: It is permissible for a woman to look at the entire body of her husband, and it is permissible for the husband to look at the entire body of his wife without going into much detail (here), as Allaah (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) says:
{And those who guard their chastity. Except from their wives or that their right hands possess, for then, they are free from blame. But whoever seeks beyond that, then those are the transgressors}, [Soorah al-Mu.minoon, Aayah 5-7]
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa az-Zawaaj wa 'Ishratun-Nisaa. - Question 80, Page 110
Had a wet dream and then had sexual intercourse with my wife
Had a wet dream and then had sexual intercourse with my wife
Question: I slept next to my wife and saw in my dream that I was having sexual intercourse, and as a result, I ejaculated sperm. So when I awoke from my dream I washed myself and went to my wife and had sexual intercourse with her. So is there any sin upon me or not?
Response: If the situation is as you have described, then there is no sin upon you with respect to the dream, rather it is upon you to take a ghusl as a result.
Likewise, it is upon you to take a ghusl for a second time after having had sexual intercourse with your wife.
However, if you delayed taking a ghusl as a result of the dream until you had sexual intercourse with you wife, and then took a ghusl for them both (the dream and sexual intercourse with the wife), then there is no harm in this.
And with Allaah lies all success and may Allaah send prayers and salutations upon our Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) and his family and his companions.
The Permanent Committee for Islaamic Research and Fataawa
'Ishratun-Nisaa. wa Hill al-Khilaafaat az-Zowjiyyah - Page 57
Husband calls his wife to bed, but she is ill and unable to respond to his call
Husband calls his wife to bed, but she is ill and unable to respond to his call
Question: Does the woman fall into sin if she refuses her husband when he calls her (to his bed) if she is suffering from a fleeting mental lapse, or she is ill and suffering from pain?
Response: It is obligatory upon the woman to respond to her husband if he calls her to his bed. However, if she is ill due to a mental lapse and is unable to face her husband, then in this situation it is not permissible for her husband to request her (to satisfy his (sexual) needs) as the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((There is to be no harm and no causing of harm)).
And it is upon him to restrain himself and seek to satisfy (himself) with his wife in a manner which will not cause any harm (to her).
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa az-Zawaaj wa 'Ishratun-Nisaa. - Question 72, Page 103
MARRIAGE | Sexual relations | Sexual relations |
MARRIAGE | Sexual relations | Sexual relations |
Having sexual intercourse with the wife whilst she is pregnant
Question: Is it permissible to have sexual intercourse with the wife whilst she is pregnant? And is there any evidence in the Qur.aan and the Sunnah which indicates a permissibility or impermissibility for this?
Response: It is permissible for the man to have sexual iintercourse with his wife whilst she is pregnant, as Allaah (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) says:
{Your wives are a tilth for you...}, [Soorah al-Baqarah, Aayah 223]
And the evidence is His (Subhaanahu wa Ta'aala) saying:
{And those who guard their chastity. Except from their wives or that their right hands possess...}, [Soorah al-Mu.minoon, Aayah 5-6]
So the statement {Except from their wives} implies the basis for a man seeking satisfaction from his wife is permissible in all cases. However, that which occurs in the Qur.aan and the Sunnah in terms of an obligation to keep away from the woman is a general prohibition, so it is not necessary to seek evidence as to the permissibility of sexual intercourse with a pregnant wife, since the basis is permissibility.
And it is not permissible for a man to have sexual intercourse with his wife via her vagina when she is on her menses, however, it is (permissible) for him to seek enjoyment with her in everything other than the vagina.
And it is not permissibile for him to penetrate her in her anus because that is the place of excrement and filth.
And it is not permissible for him to have sexual intercourse with her if she is in the state of post partum bleeding. However, if she is in a state of purity from her menses and post partum bleeding, then it is (permissible) for him to have sexual intercourse with her, even if she becomes pure from her post partum bleeding before the completion of 40 days.
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa az-Zawaaj wa 'Ishratun-Nisaa. - Question 73, Page 104
Ruling concerning anal intercourse
Ruling concerning anal intercourse
Question: A man asked his wife to have anal intercourse with him. Is this acceptable behavior from the point of view of the religion?
Response: That is an evil act. Abu Daawood, an-Nasaa.ee and others record with a good chain that the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((Accursed is the one who has anal intercourse with his wife)).
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
Intention itself is not sufficient to divorce
Intention itself is not sufficient to divorce
Question: What is the ruling regarding someone who intended to divorce his wife, and then delayed doing so?
Response: If a man intended to divorce his wife, then left that and did not do anything, then (by this) a divorce is not constituted, as divorce is not constituted by an intention (itself). (This is) as the Prophet (sal-Allaahu `alayhe wa sallam) said:
((Indeed Allaah overlooks the affairs of my ummah, so long as it has not done the act or spoken (about it))).
So long as he did not (verbally) pronounce (the divorce) or write it, rather just intended doing so, then this constitutes nothing, and his wife (therefore) remains under his protection, and no divorce has been constituted until he writes the divorce or (verbally) pronounces it.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz
Fataawa at-Talaaq - Question 32, Page 57
Impotence permits one to seek a divorce
Impotence permits one to seek a divorce
Question: A woman was married for many years and did not have any children. After an examination, it was determined that the problem was from her husband and it would be impossible for the two of them to have children. Does she have the right to seek a divorce?
Response: That woman has a right to ask for divorce from her husband if it is shown that the infertility problem is from him alone. If he divorces her, that is final. If he does not divorce her, a judge may dissolve her marriage. This is because the woman has the right to have children and many women do not even get married except to have children. If the man she is married to is impotent or sterile, she has the right to ask for divorce and have her marriage dissolved. This is the stronger opinion among the scholars.
Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen
Fataawa al-Mar.ah
